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Today in Biblical History

Did Roman Law Prohibit Yahudim from Owning Christian Slaves?

4th–5th c. CE · Codex Theodosianus 16.9 (+ related)

What the ancient record says

Yes, legislation increasingly restricted Yahudi ownership of slaves identified as Christianoi, appearing repeatedly in late Roman law. Why the state cared: slavery placed one person under another's household authority; Christian rulers grew concerned a Yahudi owner might circumcise, convert, or influence a Christian slave's religious identity, religious hierarchy entering property law.

Did the law abolish slavery? No, it was not "humans must no longer be owned"; it regulated which religious group could own particular slaves; slavery itself remained legal.

If a Yahudi owner circumcised a Christian slave: earlier legislation treated it severely; Constantinian and later laws addressed slave circumcision and gave mechanisms for affected slaves to gain freedom; later laws strengthened restrictions on Yahudi ownership of Christian slaves. Matters because religious status became embedded in property rights, household authority, and economic law.

Read it for yourself. Codex Theodosianus 16.9 (Yahudim + Christian slaves); compare 16.8 (dates and emperors).

Evidence strength: Direct Roman legal evidence.

Question answered: Did Rome prohibit/severely restrict Yahudim from owning Christian slaves? Yes, directly in imperial law.
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